Published by:
CGP EDU Academic Team
Published on: August 14, 2026
If sin –1 x + sin –1 y + sin –1 z = π , then x 4 + y 4 + z 4 +
4x 2 y 2 z 2 = k (x 2 y 2 + y 2 z 2 + z 2 x 2 ), where k is equal to -
Text Solution
Verified by ExpertsThe correct answer is:
B
We have sin –1 x + sin –1 y = π – sin –1 z
or, x
+ y
= z
or, x 2 (1– y 2 ) = z 2 + y 2 (1 – x 2 ) – 2yz 
or, (x 2 – z 2 – y 2 ) 2 = 4y 2 z 2 (1 – x 2 )
or, x 4 + y 4 + z 4 – 2x 2 z 2 + 2y 2 z 2 – 2x 2 y 2 + 4x 2 y 2 z 2 – 4y 2 z 2 =0
or, x 4 + y 4 + z 4 + 4x 2 y 2 z 2 = 2(x 2 y 2 + y 2 z 2 + z 2 x 2 )
∴ k = 2.
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