Published by:
CGP EDU Academic Team
Published on: August 13, 2026
Let x 2 ≠ n π –1, n ∈ N, then
dx
is equal to:
Text Solution
Verified by ExpertsThe correct answer is:
B
=
dx
x 2 + 1 = t ⇒ 2x dx = dt
I =
dt
=
dt =
dt
=
+ c = λ n
+ c
Prepare Smarter with CGP Edu
Get practice questions, solutions, and test series in one place.
Write a Review
Share your experience with this question and solution.
Commentary
Send your comment, doubt, correction, or feedback to admin.
Similar Questions
Explore conceptually related problems
+ C
+ C
λ n |sec(x 2 + 1)| + C
λ n
+ C