Published by:
CGP EDU Academic Team
Published on: August 13, 2026
If g is the inverse of a function f and f'(x) =
, then g'(x) equal to
Text Solution
Verified by ExpertsThe correct answer is:
B
If f(x) & g(x) are inverse of each other then,
g'(f(x)) =
; g'(f(x)) = 1 + x 5
Here x = g(y)
⇒ g'(y) = 1 + [g(y)] 5 ⇒ g'(x) = 1 + {g(x)} 5
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